Psych 12AP Unit 5, 6, and Cognition Test

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____	1.	By 1960, the study of consciousness had been revived by psychologists' renewed interest in
a.	perception.	
b.	emotion.	
c.	socialization.	
d.	mental processes.	
e.	mental health.	

____	2.	Just prior to awakening Chinua from a hypnotic state, the therapist told him that during the next few days he would feel nauseous whenever he reached for a cigarette. Chinua's therapist was attempting to make use of
a.	age regression.	
b.	posthypnotic suggestion.	
c.	hypnagogic sensations.	
d.	REM rebound.	
e.	parallel processing.	

____	3.	The divided-consciousness theory of hypnosis states that hypnosis involves
a.	role-playing.	
b.	dissociation.	
c.	age regression.	
d.	motivational conflict.	
e.	obedience to authority.	

____	4.	With the approach of night, our body temperatures begin to drop. This best illustrates the dynamics of the
a.	hypnagogic state.	
b.	circadian rhythm.	
c.	alpha wave pattern.	
d.	REM rebound.	
e.	latent content.	

____	5.	After flying from California to New York, Arthur experienced a restless, sleepless night. His problem was most likely caused by a disruption of his normal
a.	dopamine production.	
b.	circadian rhythm.	
c.	hypnagogic sensations.	
d.	alpha wave patterns.	
e.	manifest content.	

____	6.	After four years of working nights, Raymond now works days. His present difficulty in getting to sleep at night is most likely due to a disruption of his normal
a.	circadian rhythm.	
b.	hypnagogic sensations.	
c.	alpha wave pattern.	
d.	sleep apnea.	
e.	physical dependence.	

____	7.	Alpha waves are associated with
a.	REM sleep.	
b.	NREM-1 sleep.	
c.	NREM-2 sleep.	
d.	NREM-3 sleep.	
e.	relaxed but awake state.	

____	8.	Obesity is a risk factor for developing which of the following sleep disorders?
a.	night terrors	
b.	sleepwalking	
c.	sleep apnea	
d.	insomnia	
e.	sleep talking	

____	9.	About three hours after he falls asleep, Bobby often sits up in bed screaming incoherently. His mother tries to awaken him, but with no success. His pulse races and he gasps for breath. The next morning, he remembers nothing. It appears that Bobby suffers from
a.	night terrors.	
b.	narcolepsy.	
c.	sleep spindles.	
d.	sleep apnea.	
e.	insomnia.	

____	10.	Freud called the remembered story line of a dream its ________ content.
a.	manifest	
b.	latent	
c.	dissociated	
d.	paradoxical	
e.	delusional	

____	11.	Chemical substances that alter perceptions and moods are called ________ drugs.
a.	neuroadaptive	
b.	narcoleptic	
c.	psychoactive	
d.	hypnagogic	
e.	dissociative	

____	12.	Unpleasant withdrawal symptoms are indicative of
a.	narcolepsy.	
b.	neuroadaptation.	
c.	dissociation.	
d.	physical dependence.	
e.	REM rebound.	

____	13.	Although repeated use of amphetamines has caused Aaron legal problems, which threaten his job, he continues to use the drugs. Aaron most clearly shows signs of
a.	REM rebound.	
b.	age regression.	
c.	narcolepsy.	
d.	addiction.	
e.	dissociation.	

____	14.	Drugs such as alcohol and opiates that calm neural activity and slow body functions are called
a.	hallucinogens.	
b.	depressants.	
c.	endorphins.	
d.	amphetamines.	
e.	dissociatives.	

____	15.	Research indicates that alcohol
a.	impairs short-term recall of what has just been said.	
b.	disrupts the processing of recent experiences into long-term memories.	
c.	impairs recall of existing long-term memories.	
d.	increases REM sleep.	
e.	decreases latent content.	

____	16.	Nembutal, Seconal, and Amytal, drugs prescribed to reduce insomnia, are
a.	barbiturates.	
b.	amphetamines.	
c.	opiates.	
d.	mild hallucinogens.	
e.	stimulants.	

____	17.	Which of the following is the most widely consumed psychoactive substance?
a.	alcohol	
b.	marijuana	
c.	nicotine	
d.	cocaine	
e.	caffeine	

____	18.	By triggering the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, ________ boosts alertness and diminishes appetite.
a.	alcohol	
b.	heroin	
c.	nicotine	
d.	MDMA	
e.	THC	

____	19.	After ingesting a small dose of a psychoactive drug, Laqueta experienced vivid visual hallucinations and felt as if she were separated from her own body. Laqueta most likely experienced the effects of
a.	cocaine.	
b.	LSD.	
c.	heroin.	
d.	marijuana.	
e.	barbiturates.	

____	20.	THC, the active ingredient in ________, is classified as a ________.
a.	marijuana; hallucinogen	
b.	marijuana; stimulant	
c.	cocaine; stimulant	
d.	cocaine; hallucinogen	
e.	heroin; depressant	

____	21.	The first experimental studies of associative learning were conducted by
a.	John B. Watson.	
b.	B. F. Skinner.	
c.	Albert Bandura.	
d.	Ivan Pavlov.	
e.	Edward Deci.	

____	22.	In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, the US was
a.	a tone.	
b.	salivation to the sound of a tone.	
c.	the presentation of food in the dog's mouth.	
d.	salivation to the food in the mouth.	
e.	not used in the conditioning trials.	

____	23.	If a tone causes a dog to salivate because it has regularly been associated with the presentation of food, the tone is called a(n)
a.	unconditioned stimulus.	
b.	primary reinforcer.	
c.	conditioned stimulus.	
d.	immediate reinforcer.	
e.	conditioned reinforcer.	

____	24.	In Pavlov's experiments, the taste of food triggered salivation in a dog. The food in the dog's mouth was the
a.	US.	
b.	UR.	
c.	CS.	
d.	CR.	
e.	SR.	

____	25.	In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, a CR was
a.	salivation to the sound of a tone.	
b.	salivation to the taste of food.	
c.	the sound of a tone.	
d.	the taste of food.	
e.	sight of the food in the bowl.	

____	26.	In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs, the CS was
a.	the taste of food.	
b.	salivation to the taste of food.	
c.	the sound of a tone.	
d.	salivation to the sound of a tone.	
e.	the anticipation of food.	

____	27.	Researchers condition a flatworm to contract its body to a light by repeatedly pairing the light with electric shock. The stage in which the flatworm's contraction response to light is established and gradually strengthened is called
a.	shaping.	
b.	acquisition.	
c.	generalization.	
d.	spontaneous recovery.	
e.	latent learning.	

____	28.	If a tone that regularly signals food triggers a salivation response, then a light that becomes associated with that tone may also begin to trigger salivation. This best illustrates
a.	latent learning.	
b.	the law of effect.	
c.	higher-order conditioning.	
d.	a variable-ratio schedule.	
e.	positive reinforcement.	

____	29.	Voluntary behaviors that produce rewarding or punishing consequences are called
a.	respondent behaviors.	
b.	prosocial behaviors.	
c.	operant behaviors.	
d.	conditioned responses.	
e.	unconditioned responses.	

____	30.	A stimulus that acquires reinforcing power by association with a primary reinforcer is called a ________ reinforcer.
a.	delayed	
b.	negative	
c.	partial	
d.	conditioned	
e.	positive	

____	31.	Most animals are best conditioned through reinforcers delivered immediately after the desired behavior is performed. What are these reinforcers called?
a.	unconditioned	
b.	conditioned	
c.	partial	
d.	immediate	
e.	primary	

____	32.	The way slot machines reward gamblers with money best illustrates
a.	spontaneous recovery.	
b.	partial reinforcement.	
c.	generalization.	
d.	shaping.	
e.	continuous reinforcement.	

____	33.	A fixed-ratio schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n)
a.	specified time period has elapsed.	
b.	unpredictable time period has elapsed.	
c.	specified number of responses have been made.	
d.	unpredictable number of responses have been made.	
e.	specific number of rewards and punishments are applied.	

____	34.	A variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after
a.	a specified time period has elapsed.	
b.	an unpredictable time period has elapsed.	
c.	a specified number of responses have been made.	
d.	an unpredictable number of responses have been made.	
e.	the desired behavior is performed during a predetermined time interval.	

____	35.	A variable-interval schedule of reinforcement is one in which a response is reinforced only after a(n)
a.	specified time period has elapsed.	
b.	unpredictable number of responses has been made.	
c.	specified number of responses has been made.	
d.	unpredictable time period has elapsed.	
e.	number of responses is performed in a specific time period.	

____	36.	An event that decreases the behavior that precedes it is a
a.	negative reinforcer.	
b.	punishment.	
c.	conditioned stimulus.	
d.	delayed reinforcer.	
e.	secondary reinforcer.	

____	37.	Animals most readily learn the specific associations that promote
a.	shaping.	
b.	survival.	
c.	extrinsic motivation.	
d.	prosocial behavior.	
e.	social interaction.	

____	38.	Some psychologists believe that rats develop mental representations of mazes they have explored. These representations have been called
a.	primary reinforcers.	
b.	successive approximations.	
c.	discriminative stimuli.	
d.	cognitive maps.	
e.	intrinsic motives.	

____	39.	Marcy grows roses for the sheer joy of it; Jennifer grows them to sell at a profit. Marcy's behavior reflects ________, whereas Jennifer's behavior reflects ________.
a.	spontaneous recovery; acquisition	
b.	a variable-ratio schedule; a fixed-ratio schedule	
c.	intrinsic motivation; extrinsic motivation	
d.	operant conditioning; classical conditioning	
e.	insight learning; latent learning	

____	40.	Dogs strapped into a harness and given repeated and unavoidable shocks
a.	experienced extinction.	
b.	underwent spontaneous recovery.	
c.	developed learned helplessness.	
d.	experienced a discriminative stimulus.	
e.	developed a conditioned reinforcer.	

____	41.	Jeremy wears his baseball cap backward because he noticed his older brother does so. This illustrates the importance of
a.	respondent behavior.	
b.	immediate reinforcement.	
c.	spontaneous recovery.	
d.	modeling.	
e.	shaping.	

____	42.	Researchers discovered that the regions of the frontal lobe activated when a monkey moves peanuts to its own mouth are also activated when the monkey simply observes other monkeys move peanuts to their mouths. This discovery pointed to the significance of
a.	intrinsic motives.	
b.	mirror neurons.	
c.	extrinsic motives.	
d.	cognitive maps.	
e.	unconditioned stimuli.	

____	43.	Mentally re-creating the mood that accompanied your original learning of course material is an effective way to activate
a.	iconic memory.	
b.	the spacing effect.	
c.	retrieval cues.	
d.	the recency effect.	
e.	retroactive interference.	

____	44.	By taking text and class notes in your own words you are improving memory by
a.	encoding memory semantically.	
b.	preventing proactive interference.	
c.	avoiding source amnesia.	
d.	creating implicit memories.	
e.	encouraging parallel processing.	

____	45.	A best example of a category of objects, events, or people is called a(n)
a.	algorithm.	
b.	concept.	
c.	prototype.	
d.	model.	
e.	heuristic.	

____	46.	Scotty worked to find the solution to a long-division problem. In solving the problem, Scotty would engage in
a.	framing.	
b.	divergent thinking.	
c.	confirmation bias.	
d.	convergent thinking.	
e.	belief perseverance.	

____	47.	Whenever Arlo reminded himself that his musical skills could earn him fame and fortune, he became less creative in his musical performance. This best illustrates that creativity may be inhibited by
a.	belief perseverance.	
b.	divergent thinking.	
c.	the representativeness heuristic.	
d.	confirmation bias.	
e.	extrinsic motivation.	

____	48.	Jamilla systematically tried each successive key on her dad's key ring until she found the one that unlocked his office door. This best illustrates problem solving by means of
a.	belief perseverance.	
b.	an algorithm.	
c.	the representativeness heuristic.	
d.	the availability heuristic.	
e.	fixation.	

____	49.	In trying to solve a potentially complicated problem quickly, we are most likely to rely on
a.	prototypes.	
b.	heuristics.	
c.	phonemes.	
d.	algorithms.	
e.	framing.	

____	50.	The use of heuristics rather than algorithms is most likely to
a.	save time in arriving at solutions to problems.	
b.	yield more accurate solutions to problems.	
c.	minimize the overconfidence phenomenon.	
d.	involve greater reliance on language skills.	
e.	avoid the issue of fixation.	

____	51.	The sudden comprehension of the double meaning of a humorous pun best illustrates
a.	the representativeness heuristic.	
b.	belief perseverance.	
c.	the availability heuristic.	
d.	the framing effect.	
e.	insight.	

____	52.	Generating multiple possible answers to a problem illustrates
a.	the representativeness heuristic.	
b.	the availability heuristic	
c.	belief perseverance.	
d.	divergent thinking.	
e.	a prototype.	

____	53.	Because she believes that boys are naughtier than girls, Mrs. Zumpano, a second-grade teacher, watches boys more closely than she watches girls for any signs of misbehavior. Mrs. Zumpano's surveillance strategy best illustrates
a.	the availability heuristic.	
b.	confirmation bias.	
c.	intuition	
d.	the representativeness heuristic.	
e.	the framing effect.	

____	54.	The inability to take a new perspective on a problem is called
a.	confirmation bias.	
b.	a fixation.	
c.	a heuristic.	
d.	the framing effect.	
e.	a prototype.	

____	55.	A mental set is a
a.	methodical step-by-step procedure for solving problems.	
b.	mental grouping of similar objects, events, or people.	
c.	tendency to approach a problem in a way that has been successful in the past.	
d.	group of conclusions derived from certain assumptions or general principles.	
e.	specific way an issue is described that can significantly alter decisions.	

____	56.	Miss Jan De Jong is orderly, neat, fairly quiet, and shy. She enjoys reading in her spare time and belongs to a social club that includes three librarians, nine real estate agents, and eight social workers. A tendency to conclude that Jan must be one of the three librarians would illustrate the powerful influence of
a.	confirmation bias.	
b.	the framing effect.	
c.	the representativeness heuristic.	
d.	the belief perseverance phenomenon.	
e.	the availability heuristic.	

____	57.	By encouraging people to imagine their homes being destroyed by a fire, insurance salespeople are especially successful at selling large homeowners' policies. They are most clearly exploiting the influence of
a.	belief perseverance.	
b.	the representativeness heuristic.	
c.	overconfidence.	
d.	the availability heuristic.	
e.	fixation.	

____	58.	The indelible memories of the 9/11 terrorist tragedy unduly inflated many people's estimates of the risks associated with air travel. This best illustrates the importance of
a.	fixation.	
b.	the representativeness heuristic.	
c.	the availability heuristic.	
d.	confirmation bias.	
e.	framing.	

____	59.	Stockbrokers often believe that their own expertise will enable them to select stocks that will outperform the market average. This belief best illustrates
a.	fixation.	
b.	the framing effect.	
c.	the representativeness heuristic.	
d.	overconfidence.	
e.	belief perseverance.	

____	60.	An unwillingness to give up our beliefs even when the evidence proves us wrong is called
a.	the representativeness heuristic.	
b.	trial and error.	
c.	belief perseverance.	
d.	confirmation bias.	
e.	the availability heuristic.	

____	61.	In writing survey questions, political pollsters who want to gather evidence of people's support for particular viewpoints are especially likely to be aware of
a.	the representativeness heuristic.	
b.	telegraphic speech.	
c.	fixation.	
d.	the framing effect.	
e.	the availability heuristic.	

____	62.	In contrast to our explicit conscious reasoning, our seemingly effortless and automatic feelings or thoughts are called
a.	mental sets.	
b.	phonemes.	
c.	algorithms.	
d.	intuitions.	
e.	heuristics.	

____	63.	The smallest distinctive sound unit of language is a
a.	prototype.	
b.	phenotype.	
c.	morpheme.	
d.	phoneme.	
e.	babble.	

____	64.	How many phonemes are in the word “bats”?
a.	0	
b.	1	
c.	2	
d.	3	
e.	4	

____	65.	English words are constructed from about ________ different phonemes.
a.	5	
b.	6	
c.	26	
d.	40	
e.	200	

____	66.	Morphemes are
a.	the smallest speech units that carry meaning.	
b.	the best examples of particular categories of objects.	
c.	the smallest distinctive sound units of a language.	
d.	rules for combining words into grammatically correct sentences.	
e.	genetic road maps that lead to insight.	

____	67.	The system of rules in a language that enables us to understand and communicate with others is called
a.	an algorithm.	
b.	telegraphic speech.	
c.	grammar.	
d.	a heuristic.	
e.	morphemes.	

____	68.	Semantics refers to the
a.	logical and methodical procedures for solving problems.	
b.	orderly arrangement of words into grammatically correct sentences.	
c.	simple thinking strategies that facilitate quick decision making.	
d.	rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences.	
e.	typical schemes we use to form concepts.	

____	69.	The spontaneous utterance of a variety of sounds by infants is called
a.	universal grammar.	
b.	babbling.	
c.	telegraphic speech.	
d.	syntax.	
e.	morpheme.	

____	70.	Noam Chomsky has emphasized that the acquisition of language by children is facilitated by
a.	an inborn readiness to learn grammatical rules.	
b.	their ability to imitate the words and grammar modeled by parents.	
c.	the learned association of word sounds with various objects, events, actions, and qualities.	
d.	the positive reinforcement that adults give children for speaking correctly.	
e.	operant and classical conditioning techniques.	

____	71.	Which of the following best illustrates overgeneralization in a young child's speech pattern?
a.	“Want juice.”	
b.	“Fish, Fish! Look at the fish!”	
c.	“Da-da, na-na, ta-ta.”	
d.	“Doggy big.”	
e.	“Momma holded the baby.”	

____	72.	Research suggests that humans can most easily master the grammar of a second language during
a.	childhood.	
b.	early adolescence.	
c.	late adolescence.	
d.	early adulthood.	
e.	late adulthood.	

____	73.	Whorf's linguistic determinism hypothesis emphasizes that
a.	infancy is a critical period for language development.	
b.	all languages share a similar grammar.	
c.	our linguistic proficiencies influence our social status.	
d.	words shape the way people think.	
e.	morphemes and phonemes build grammar and language.	

____	74.	The isolated Piraha tribespeople of Brazil have no words for specific numbers higher than 2. If shown seven nuts in a row they find it difficult to lay out the same number from their own pile of nuts. This best illustrates the impact of
a.	language on thinking.	
b.	algorithms on decision making.	
c.	prototypes on concept formation.	
d.	fixations on problem solving.	
e.	heuristics on cognition.	

____	75.	Contemporary psychologists are most likely to criticize Whorf's linguistic determinism hypothesis for
a.	overestimating the impact of thinking on language.	
b.	overestimating the extent to which thinking occurs without language.	
c.	underestimating the impact of language on thinking.	
d.	underestimating the extent to which thinking occurs without language.	
e.	underestimating how much language use changes over our lifetime.	

Psych 12AP Unit 5, 6, and Cognition Test
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

	1.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 22-1
TOP:	Defining consciousness	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	2.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 22-2
TOP:	Hypnosis	SKL:	Conceptual

	3.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 22-3
TOP:	Explaining the hypnotized state	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	4.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 23-1
TOP:	Circadian rhythm		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	5.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 23-1
TOP:	Circadian rhythm		SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	6.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 23-1
TOP:	Circadian rhythm		SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	7.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 23-2
TOP:	Sleep stages	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	8.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 24-1
TOP:	Sleep disorders		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	9.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 24-1
TOP:	Sleep disorders		SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	10.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 24-2
TOP:	What we dream		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	11.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-1
TOP:	Tolerance and Addiction	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	12.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-1
TOP:	Tolerance and Addiction	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	13.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-1
TOP:	Tolerance and Addiction	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	14.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-2
TOP:	Depressants	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	15.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-2
TOP:	Depressants	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	16.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-2
TOP:	Depressants	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	17.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-3
TOP:	Stimulants	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	18.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-3
TOP:	Stimulants	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	19.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-4
TOP:	Hallucinogens			SKL:	Conceptual

	20.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit V | 25-4
TOP:	Hallucinogens			SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	21.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-2
TOP:	Classical conditioning	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	22.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-2
TOP:	Pavlov's experiments		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	23.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-2
TOP:	Pavlov's experiments		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	24.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-2
TOP:	Pavlov's experiments		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	25.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-2
TOP:	Pavlov's experiments		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	26.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-2
TOP:	Pavlov's experiments		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	27.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-3
TOP:	Acquisition	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	28.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 26-3
TOP:	Acquisition	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	29.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-1
TOP:	Operant conditioning		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	30.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-2
TOP:	Primary and conditioned reinforcers			SKL:	Factual/Definitional

	31.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-2
TOP:	Immediate and delayed reinforcers	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	32.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-3
TOP:	Reinforcement schedules	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	33.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-3
TOP:	Reinforcement schedules	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	34.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-3
TOP:	Reinforcement schedules	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	35.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-3
TOP:	Reinforcement schedules	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	36.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 27-4
TOP:	Punishment	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	37.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 29-1
TOP:	Biological constraints on conditioning		SKL:	Factual/Definitional

	38.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 29-2
TOP:	Cognition's influence on conditioning		SKL:	Factual/Definitional

	39.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 29-2
TOP:	Cognition's influence on conditioning		SKL:	Conceptual

	40.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 29-4
TOP:	Learned Helplessness		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	41.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 30-1
TOP:	Learning by observation	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	42.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VI | 30-1
TOP:	Mirrors and imitation in the brain	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	43.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 33-4
TOP:	Improving memory		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	44.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 33-4
TOP:	Improving memory		SKL:	Application

	45.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 34-1
TOP:	Thinking and concepts	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	46.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 34-2
TOP:	Creativity	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	47.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 34-2
TOP:	Creativity	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	48.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles		SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	49.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles		SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	50.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles		SKL:	Factual/Definitional

	51.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles		SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	52.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Creativity	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	53.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles		SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	54.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles		SKL:	Factual/Definitional

	55.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-1
TOP:	Problem solving: Strategies and Obstacles		SKL:	Factual/Definitional

	56.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-2
TOP:	The representativeness heuristic	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	57.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-2
TOP:	The availability heuristic	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	58.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-2
TOP:	The availability heuristic	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	59.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-2
TOP:	Overconfidence		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	60.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-2
TOP:	Belief perseverance		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	61.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Difficult	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-2
TOP:	The effects of framing	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	62.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 35-3
TOP:	The perils and powers of intuition	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	63.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-1
TOP:	Language structure		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	64.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-1
TOP:	Language structure		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	65.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-1
TOP:	Language structure		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	66.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-1
TOP:	Language structure		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	67.	ANS:	C	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-1
TOP:	Language structure		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	68.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-1
TOP:	Language structure		SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	69.	ANS:	B	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-2
TOP:	When do we learn language?	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	70.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-3
TOP:	Explaining language development	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	71.	ANS:	E	PTS:	1	DIF:	Medium	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-3
TOP:	Explaining language development	SKL:	Conceptual/Application

	72.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-3
TOP:	Explaining language development	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	73.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Easy	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-5
TOP:	Language influences thinking	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	74.	ANS:	A	PTS:	1	DIF:	Difficult	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-5
TOP:	Language influences thinking	SKL:	Factual/Definitional	

	75.	ANS:	D	PTS:	1	DIF:	Difficult	OBJ:	Unit VII | 36-5
TOP:	Language influences thinking	SKL:	Conceptual